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If all Bloops are Razzies and all Razzies are Lazzies, are all Bloops definitely Lazzies?
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Cannot be determined
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Only if some Lazzies are Razzies
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No
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Yes
That's Correct!
It's Wrong!
This is a straightforward logical deduction:
If every Bloop is a Razzie, and
Every Razzie is a Lazzie,
then every Bloop must also be a Lazzie.
In set theory terms, if Bloops are a subset of Razzies, and Razzies are a subset of Lazzies, then Bloops are necessarily a subset of Lazzies
